### Why is gravity only an attractive force?

As per the universal law of attraction, any two bodies (having some mass) experience a force of 'attraction' which is proportionate to ...and ...inverse proportionate ....

Then comes my question: Why it should be force should be of type 'attraction' only ? Why it should not be repulsion / any other kind of force ?

@BetaDecay I'm not sure what that article is talking about. No real predictions in physics suggest antiparticles have negative mass. From wikipedia: "A particle and its antiparticle have the same mass as one another, but opposite electric charge and other quantum numbers."

I think the question is stated in a manner that limits generalizatioon. I think the larger question is if gravity is a manifestation of some larger theory under certain boundary conditions. Newton's theory of gravity is based on "ordinary observations" and works very well for most human considerations. Calculations based on Newton's theory got men to the moon and back. However for the orbit of Mercury and timing of GPS then relativistic considerations need to be taken into account. So back to what should be the question? Given that "dark energy" is causing the universe to expand faster and fas

Same question on the physics board. https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/11542/why-is-gravitation-force-always-attractive You can look up Spin 1 and Spin 2 particles for some explanations, but until gravity is actually understood, all the answers are pretty much hypothesis. Some related answers here as well: https://www.quora.com/Quantum-Field-Theory-Why-do-particles-of-odd-integer-spin-generate-forces-which-can-be-both-attractive-and-repulsive-whereas-particles-of-even-integer-spin-only-attract

### Because mass is positive

To expand your quote concerning the gravitational force into an equation:

$$F_G = -\frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}$$

The force of gravity, $F_G$ is proportional to the product of the masses and inversely proportional to the distance, $r$, squared. Let's break this down and see what might cause $F_G$ to be positive.

In this equation, $r$ cannot be negative because it's a distance between two locations. Two locations cannot be a negative distance apart. And even if they somehow were, the squared would take care of that anyway.

$G$ is the universal constant and always positive. You might argue that it could possibly be negative, but that's not possible. $G$ actually doesn't really exist. It doesn't describe anything fundamental to the physics of the universe. $G$ is simply a bookkeeping constant that allows us to get the right answer for the force based on any choice of units for mass and distance. Technically, if one uses the "correct" units for mass and distance (e.g., the Planck units), then $G=1$ and effectively doesn't exist. Since $G$ is just a scaling factor that depends on the choice of units, it will only be a positive number.

That leaves us with the masses. These are the only things which could possibly be negative. Of course, to get a positive, repulsive force, one mass would have to be positive and the other negative. But what exactly is a negative mass? Mass is the metric which describes "how much" of something there is. How can you have less than nothing of something?

### Why can mass not be negative?

If you want to look at this another way, you can show that if mass could be negative, you'd get nonsensical results! Assuming of course, all other aspects of physics were the same. Recall from Newton's second law that

$$F = ma$$

Let's say there are two blocks sitting on a table. One block has a mass $m_1>0$ which is positive and the other has a mass $m_2<0$ which is negative. Ignore all other forces on these two blocks for the moment.

I go up to $m_1$ and I apply a force to push this mass forward. The acceleration that is induced is: $a = F/m_1$.

**Necessarily**, the direction in which $m_1$ moves is the same direction in which I'm pushing. That's all well and good.Now I go over to $m_2$ and I apply the same force, attempting to push it forward on the table. The acceleration induced on $m_2$ will be: $a = -F/|m_2|$. Note I made $m_2$ positive and pulled out the negative sign. You can see that if my force is forward, the direction the mass moves will be backwards! But here's the problem, my hand is in the way because it's trying to push to mass. As the mass tries to move backwards into my hand, it will be applying a force back on my hand, which by Newton's third law, necessarily mean's my hand is applying more force on the block, which then applies more force on my hand, ... and suddenly infinite forces are being applied or equivalently, these objects are infinitely accelerating. This is described by the concept of Runaway Motion.

If this seems strange to you, that's because it is. If negative masses existed, we'd live in a very weird universe. Fortunately, we live in a universe where physics makes sense, mass is positive, and by extension gravity is always attractive.

As convincing as this explanation seems, electrical charge follows the inverse square law and charge can be positive or negative. I see no reason why mass couldn't theoretically behave the same way. I believe it's actually a "fundamental mystery" as to why gravity is the only one of the four known forces that acts only to attract and never to repel. The other 3 fundamental forces can do either.

@barrycarter I thought about addressing this in my answer. I guess I should have. The catch here is that Newton's second law is **not** $F=ea$, it's $F=ma$. You can't apply the argument above to negative electric charges for that reason. The reason mass can't behave in the same way is for the reason I outlined above. It isn't a mystery. If Newton's second law instead was $F=ea$, then electric charge could not be negative.

The second law describes inertial mass, not (necessarily) gravitational mass though.

@adrianmcmenamin But all evidence suggests the two are equivalent. In fact, their equivalence is a major component of GR and there has been no evidence so far showing this part of GR is wrong. I described the answer for the universe we appear to live in (aside from the potentiality for negative mass). If you want to throw in all sorts of other complications, that's outside the scope of my answer.

Interestingly, the force of gravity would be negative if the distance was imaginary! So just imagine some mass at a particular distance from you and it will repel you.

The "why mass can't be negative" doesn't seem very convincing to me. *F* in your example could just as well be a force caused by gravity and there would be nothing in the way. Presumably, if the mass were negative you wouldn't be able to push it with your hand.

@Octopus There are many reasons why mass can't be negative. The one I outlined is just one reason using one particular case. And I don't see why you wouldn't be able to push the mass with your hand if it were negative (aside from the runaway motion problem I described).

@zephyr, well you just said "mass can't be negative" and then "I don't see why I wouldnt be able to push it if it were negative." you've contradicted yourself. There are theories on antimatter. You wouldn't push antimatter with matter.

@Octopus I didn't contradict myself. I said mass can't be negative. But, if it could, I don't see why you believe you couldn't push it with your hand. And what does anti-matter have to do with any of this? That is not pertinent to this discussion.

"suddenly infinite forces are being applied"... OK, but when a proton attracts an electron, doesn't the same thing happen? The two get closer and closer and the attractive force increases to infinity? In reality, at some point, the weak and strong nuclear forces take over.

@zephyr, well, thanks for providing a sort of explanation ....but it seems there is an assumption that a force being '+ve' would mean attraction...which does not make sense ...as it could not explain why two masses should attract each other ...

I don't see a whole lot of talk about General Relativity here. If gravity is just thought of as mass causing 3d "divots" in space time, I don't see why some unknown entity wouldn't cause "bumps", other than the fact that we don't observe them. Or, maybe all of space-time in our universe is one big "bump" that we call "dark energy".

@barrycarter Yes, you're correct that the functional forms of graivty and electromagnetism diverge when $r\rightarrow 0$, however that's not possible in reality. Not to mention that has nothing to do with my answer anyway, so I don't see why you mentioned it.

@MeaCulpaNay What is '+ve' supposed to be? I don't know what you mean by a force of that type. I make no assumptions about anything, I just take the normal laws of physics and say what happens if mass can be negative.

@zephyr, well, my earlier comments were based on entirely a single-sided argument which considers what are all possible quantities can go '-ve' in the illustrated equation...and there by counter-arguing ...that neither mass/nor distance/nor 'G' can become negative ...and there by proving that 'F' must be a positive quantity. Till this it is fine. But then comes the crux - how nature of F is linked with the force being attractive or something else ? That is my basic doubt. Hope this clarifies.

@MeaCulpaNay I still don't understand what '-ve' is supposed to be. What is 'v' and what is 'e'? Is this an equation? Is it a suffix? And I still don't understand your doubt. I basically showed F depends on three terms, all of which must be positive, implying F necessarily must be positive as well.

@zephyr, well, thanks. I am sorry, I could not express myself in a better manner... what I meant in my earlier posts are: +ve = positive, -ve = negative.

Why is gravity only an attractive force?

**TL;DR**

Because mass is always positive.**There are different notions of mass, but they're equivalent.**

There are two distinct notions of mass: gravitational and inertial. The masses in Newton's law of gravitation, $F = \frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}$, are gravitational masses. The mass in Newton's second law of motion, $F=ma$, is inertial mass. Gravitational and inertial mass are implicitly assumed to be the same in Newtonian mechanics. General relativity makes this assumption explicit in the equivalence principle.**But what if they're not equivalent?**Unlike mathematics, where one can simply make an assumption and see where it leads, assumptions in physics need to be validated. This assumption has been tested with many kinds of materials, both on the ground and in space. Variations on the Cavendish experiment using different kinds of materials have been made. Within the limits of the rather lousy accuracy of the gravitational constant (one part per ten thousand, at best), every one of these is consistent with the null hypothesis (gravitational and inertial mass are the same) and inconsistent with the hypothesis that different materials have measurably different gravitational and inertial masses.

The Earth's Moon, with its very different near-side and far-side, provides an even better mechanism for testing this equivalence. Rather than the one part per ten thousand (at best) accuracy available to Cavendish-style experiments, the Moon shows that gravitational and inertial mass for sodium and iron are equivalent to within about one part per ten trillion.

**So much for ordinary matter, but what about antimatter?**That an ordinary matter particle and its antimatter equivalent have the same (positive) inertial mass has been tested over and over in particle colliders around the world. Whether the equivalence principle also applies to antimatter remains a somewhat open question. While there are many reasons to think that the equivalence principle applies to antimatter as well as normal matter, testing that this is the case is very hard. The best results to date are from the ALPHA experiment, which tests whether neutral antihydrogen (a antiproton and an positron) falls up or down. The results are that antihydrogen's gravitational mass lies somewhere between -65 and 120 times its inertial mass. This is not anywhere close to conclusive, but it does lean towards antimatter having a positive gravitational mass, consistent with the equivalence principle.

Along the same lines with previous answers suggesting "mass cannot be negative," I'd like to add an insight for why that might probably be the case. If Higgs field and particles' varying degrees of interaction with the field is what gives rise to what we call mass, then the theory suggests that photons don't have mass (and constitute the velocity limit through space) because they don't interact with the field at all. I don't think the framework allows for negative interaction with the field or an "anti-Higgs" field.

Did you mean "photon" rather than "proton" being massless?

Theoretically, gravity can be "attractive" in the sense that objects move towards you when pushed. This can occur from negative mass (doesn't seem to make sense, but theoretically possible). Peter Engels and others have written a paper about it here and it's an interesting idea.

The idea is that by cooling the atoms to almost absolute zero, they create a Bose-Einstein condensate and act likes waves in the realm of quantum dynamics.

That paper in no way suggests that *gravity* can be reversed. The paper says that atoms within a Bose-Einstein condensate can, under certain conditions involving 1-D expansion of the BEC, "accelerate against the applied force, realizing a negative effective mass related to a negative curvature of the underlying dispersion relation." In other words, the positive-mass rubidium-87 atoms briefly *behave* as if they had negative mass. The equivalence of inertial and gravitational forces remains uncertain at quantum level, so you can't use this result to argue for "negative" gravity.

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Beta Decay 5 years ago

There was an article in New Scientist on this a while ago. It was describing research into how antimatter (presumed to have a *negative mass*) reacts under Earth's gravity. It is thought that antimatter (specifically anti-hydrogen, in this case) may rise instead of fall.